Monday, 19 October 2009

Anyone Understand This?

I read in The Publican that SABMiller saw its UK beer volumes rise by 15% in the first six months of the year. The article goes on to say that lager volumes fell by 1%, but gives no clue as to how the overall rise in volumes is derived.

Well one might conclude that this rise is ale volumes, as they don't brew stout, but can that really be true?  To me this just doesn't add up.

Footnote: A look at SABMiller's trading statement leaves me none the wiser, except to conclude that the Publican is mixing up world and UK positions.


The Beer Justice said...

Lager volumes down 1% is a worldwide figure. They have a tiny portion of the UK beer market so I guess any improvement in Peroni sales or even Polish imports can have a 15% increase in their UK sales overall. Steve

Stonch said...

Pilsner Urquell and Peroni are the lagers of the moment and just looking around they must be increasing market share at the expense of others, and on that basis it wouldn't surprise me if SAB's UK volumes are increasing despite the general fall in lager sales across the board.

The general plummeting in lager sales is, I suspect, due to the bottom falling out of the lower-end pub market. And lower end pubs tend to sell InBev, Carlsberg and S&N products, not those from SABMiller.

Tandleman said...

Very good points, that clearly I've overlooked. That'll be it.